I think I have worded it clumsily - unless I've misconstrued what you're saying. Sexual urges often tend to be hormonally driven and regulated by dopamine/seratonine systems. If sexual urges either don't happen in the first place, or can be easily ignored is this because they aren't there, or are offset instead by some other process? Isn't that what we'd refer to as asexuality?

To my mind, an asexual person either has a lack of libido or their libido is internally regulated and isn't acted upon in a sexual way. That's presented without judgment too, it's neither a good thing or a bad thing. I guess it would result in what could be construed as a sexual orientation but the older I get, the less I buy into the whole sexual orientation schtick anyway, I think the human race is a bit more complicated than the labels we give ourselves. :o)